Is a wife considered a virgin after penetration that does not rupture the elastic hymen, and is the divorce contract that describes her as a virgin valid, and what is the correct way to reconcile in this case?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
It is permissible for a husband to enjoy his wife after the marriage contract and before consummation, while observing custom to avoid mischief. If intercourse occurs, the wife is no longer a virgin, and her divorce is valid. Her virginity or lack thereof affects the issue of the mahr (dowry); she receives half of it if divorced before consummation, and the full amount after it, or after a valid khalwa (private seclusion). If the divorce is revocable and without compensation, she can be taken back during her iddah (waiting period). However, if it is a khul' (divorce at the wife's instance), she cannot return except with a new contract.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/10974
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 10974
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy