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The question

What is the ruling on a man who became angry with his wife for talking to a man via Messenger at night without his permission, and he said to her: "If you talk to any man without my permission, then no bond will tie me to you," intending divorce? And does this condition apply to all men and at all times, or is it limited to the specific situation that angered him?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The husband's statement to his wife: "If you speak to any man without my permission, no bond will tie me to you," intending divorce, carries two possibilities: 1. It is a conditional divorce that takes effect as soon as she speaks to a man without his permission, if he intended for her to be divorced upon speaking. 2. It is a promise of divorce and not an immediate divorce, if he intended that he would divorce her if she spoke.

If his intention was a conditional divorce, then his specific aim should be considered: If he intended "any man" and "at any time" (as the apparent wording suggests), then she is divorced as soon as she speaks to any man at any time without his permission. If he intended a specific man or a specific time, then his intention is what matters.

If there is doubt about the intention, then the default remains the generality of the wording, and divorce occurs if the wife speaks to any man at any time without his permission. Getting out of this oath would be for the husband to permit his wife to speak with men, while restricting it. The wife must adhere to the Islamic guidelines when speaking with non-mahram men.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy