Does anything occur with the utterance "divorcing my wife" or "I have divorced my wife," knowing that the word "divorcing" means launching a missile?

A man's statement, "I release my wife" or "I have released my wife," is not an explicit declaration of divorce (talaq). Rather, it is an implicit statement (kinaya) that could mean divorce or something else. Implicit statements of divorce do not effect a divorce unless there is an intention to do so. If he intended to effect a divorce, then it occurs; if he did not intend it, then it does not occur.