Does divorce occur in the modern era with the utterance "I have divorced" (with the intention that the suspended divorce has taken effect), even though the condition upon which the divorce was suspended (breaking the oath) has not yet occurred?

The oath is not broken in a conditional divorce merely by the wife's statement that she will cause the husband to break his oath. If the husband says "I have divorced" believing that the divorce has occurred, without intending to initiate a new divorce, then nothing results from that. The spouses should avoid problems and make their marital life stable, and fulfill the marital rights between them, for leniency in the matter of divorce contradicts the legal purpose.