Does divorce take place in two situations: first, if the husband made his wife's divorce conditional on the existence of communication between her and her ex-husband since the marriage contract and after consummation, while the communication occurred before consummation and was concerning the children? And how many divorces take place? Second, if the husband sent his wife a text message with the word "divorced" after their disagreement?

If the husband has conditioned his wife's divorce upon the occurrence of correspondence or phone calls between her and her ex-husband since their marriage contract, then if her ex-husband contacts her after the contract, a divorce occurs. However, if he did not intend to condition the divorce upon any contact whatsoever, but rather specified it, for example, to a situation where there is no necessity, then the divorce does not occur unless his intention is realized. But if he conditioned the divorce upon contact occurring after consummation, and no contact occurred except before it, then no divorce occurs. As for a message, divorce does not occur by it unless he intended to divorce his wife through it. Therefore, it is preferable to present the matter to trustworthy scholars face-to-face to ascertain the husband's intention. And the husband should control himself and not hasten to utter the divorce.