Is the return of a divorced wife due to infertility, at the husband's desire and with the father's approval, but without the approval of the mother who dislikes the wife, considered disobedience to parents (Uquq), and will the husband be held responsible for any harm that befalls the mother as a result?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
It is not permissible to disobey the mother regarding marriage to a specific woman. If the wife has become irrevocably divorced (ba'inat) after the expiration of her , then obedience to the mother takes precedence over marrying her. However, if she is still within her iddah, she is still under the husband's authority. If the mother orders him not to reconcile with her for a legitimate religious reason, then obedience to her is obligatory. Otherwise, it is not obligatory. We advise him to be dutiful to his mother and strive to please her concerning the matter of reconciling with his wife.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/73426
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 73426
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy