Back to search
The question

What is the ruling on the occurrence of the three oaths of divorce mentioned, without the intention of effecting divorce? What is the ruling on delaying the payment of expiation? Is a single expiation permissible for all oaths? And how is the expiation for an oath paid?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Regarding the first oath in which he swore by divorce, believing himself to be truthful and not intending to lie, his divorce does not take effect, nor is expiation due from him, as stated by Ibn Taymiyyah.

As for the second and third oaths, which are swearing to his wife and children that they would not eat with him, and to his wife that she would not remain in the house, then retracting these oaths: The fatwa (ruling) according to us is that divorce does occur, and this is the view of the majority of scholars. However, according to Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, divorce does not occur unless he intended to effect it, but he is required to pay expiation for each oath. The expiation for an oath is feeding ten needy persons or clothing them, or fasting three days for whoever cannot find [the former options], and it is more prudent to pay it immediately.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
189695
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy