Is adding sports channels to the television considered a violation of the father's oath of divorce, after he had agreed to the presence of Al-Majd and Al-Madar channels, or does his agreement annul the oath? And is his saying "by divorce" considered an oath, despite his habit of using it for emphasis?

The majority of scholars hold that swearing by divorce results in divorce upon breaking the oath, and this is the fatwa given. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the view that swearing by divorce, when the intention is not to effect a divorce but rather to threaten or emphasize, takes the ruling of swearing by Allah, and it necessitates an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin) without the divorce taking place.

Accordingly, the fatwa given is that the divorce has occurred by bringing the television into the house. If this pronouncement of divorce does not complete the three, then he may reconcile with his wife before the expiry of her iddah (waiting period). However, according to the view of Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, no divorce has occurred, but your father is required to offer an expiation for an oath. It is obligatory to advise your father to avoid swearing by divorce.