Does a divorce take effect if a husband, while angry, says to his wife, "You are forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment," and then hangs up, knowing that he drinks alcohol?
Your question is vague, but what we understand is that your husband conditioned your prohibition on closing something in his face. If you did not close it, or closed it differently from what your husband intended, then nothing is binding on him. However, if you closed it as he intended and he was conscious, not drunk, when he conditioned the oath, then his intention is considered:
- If he intended divorce: it is a divorce.
- If he intended ẓihār: it is ẓihār.
- If he intended an oath by Allah, or had no intention: an expiation for an oath is binding on him.
The proof for this is Allah's saying: "O Prophet, why do you prohibit what Allah has made lawful for you, seeking to please your wives? And Allah is Forgiving, Merciful. Allah has already ordained for you [Muslims] the dissolution of your oaths."
The expiations for ẓihār and oaths have been explained previously.
If a divorce occurred, and it was a first or second divorce, he may take you back before the end of the ʿiddah. The ʿiddah ends with your purification from the third menstruation, or after three months for one who does not menstruate, or by giving birth for a pregnant woman.
Drinking alcohol is a sin. If a drinker is aware of what he is saying, his divorce and ẓihār are valid. However, if he is not aware, he is in the ruling of an insane person and is not held accountable for his actions.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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