Is the husband's statement to his wife, "We need to go back to our condition and make sure she buys absolutely nothing, neither from you nor from me," considered a second suspension of divorce, given that there was no intention to suspend divorce but rather an intention to threaten and admonish? If so, does one divorce or two divorces occur if the wife violates the first condition (not buying from her own income), which automatically applies to the second condition?

Your second statement to your wife, "We want to go back to our condition," is not considered a suspension of divorce, because the wording is not definitive; rather, it indicates a desire that has not yet been put into effect. Therefore, if the wife disobeys and buys something with her own money, one divorce occurs based only on the first suspension, as a divorce suspended upon a condition takes effect when that condition occurs, according to the majority of scholars.