Does the intention for a question occur if it is accompanied by an intention when sending or printing it, and do the formulas of sending not entail anything even if accompanied by an intention?

Divorce takes effect with a clear pronouncement from the husband, or through an ambiguous expression combined with the intention [of divorce]. The aforementioned wording is neither a clear pronouncement nor an ambiguous expression that implies it. If the husband utters it or writes it with the intention of divorce, divorce does not take effect thereby. As for the wife, she does not possess the right to divorce in the first place, so her pronouncement of it holds no weight. It appears that the questioner is suffering from obsessive whisperings (waswasah), so she should disregard them, seek Allah's help, and frequently supplicate.