What is the meaning of "If the husband's intention is hidden, he is asked about his intention" in the context of divorce? And what is the ruling on suspended divorce with an ambiguous phrasing if the husband did not intend divorce? And is the wife obligated to ask her husband about his intention regarding allusive phrases, even if she is certain that he did not intend to effect a divorce?

The wife should ask her husband what he intended by the indirect divorce (kinayat al-talaq (definition)) if he made it conditional on an action from her and she performed it. However, she should not ask him if she is not certain that what he uttered was an indirect divorce. Conditional divorce, according to the majority of scholars, takes effect when the condition is met, in contrast to the view of Ibn Taymiyyah. The fatwa (definition) (religious edict) given is in accordance with the view of the majority. It is advisable not to ask the husband about his intention and to disregard obsessive doubts.