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What is the sin incurred by a wife who does not inquire of her husband about his intention regarding the explicit or conditional allusive divorce pronouncements he utters during disputes, given the husband's knowledge that an allusive divorce occurs when accompanied by the intention, and the wife's anxiety about living in a state of unlawfulness?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The wife bears no sin for not asking her husband what he meant by the words of implied divorce. She is not obligated to ask him about his intention, as this involves hardship, difficulty, and an excessive scrutiny (tanaṭṭuʿ) that is prohibited. Furthermore, the husband knows his own intention best, and his word is accepted in case of dispute. Any sin incurred is his alone. The wife must turn away from misgivings and be convinced of her continued marital bond with her husband.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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