Do the hadiths that address women include men, and if the answer is yes, does the hadith about angels cursing a woman who does not respond to her husband also include a man if he does not respond to his wife, especially since intercourse is a right for both spouses?

The discourse that encompasses both men and women is that addressed to "the believers" (المؤمنين) or "people" (الناس), with the exception of discourse specifically using the terms "men" (الرجال) or "women" (النساء). Women are included in the collective addressed as "people" (الناس) and in contexts where no specific masculine or feminine gender is indicated. However, regarding plurals formed with "waw" and "nun," such as "Muslims" (المسلمين), and masculine pronouns, there is a difference of opinion. The correct view is that women are included when both males and females are present, as the masculine form is given precedence.

Discourse specific to men does not include women, and vice versa. However, the general principle is that rulings apply to both sexes unless there is evidence or an indication to the contrary, for women are "sisters of men." An example demonstrating this distinction is found in hadiths like, "If a woman invites her husband to her bed and she refuses, and he spends the night angry with her, the angels curse her until morning." This is specific to women, and men are not to be analogized to them due due to a difference between them. The man is the owner of the marital right, and he might not be active at a certain time. As for the woman, she is considered defiant if she refuses.