Is it established that the Almighty’s saying: (It is not lawful for you to take women thereafter, nor that you should exchange them for other wives) is evidence that it was not permissible for the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, to divorce his wives? And if it is established, is that a virtue for them? And what about his divorce of Hafsa, may Allah be pleased with her?
We can summarize what was mentioned in the question as follows: 1. The most apparent opinion in interpreting the verse: (It is not lawful for you, [O Muhammad], to marry women after this, nor [for you] to exchange them for [other] wives, even if their beauty were to please you, except what your right hand possesses. And ever is Allah, over all things, an Observer.) Al-Ahzab/52, is that the Prophet (peace be upon him) was forbidden from divorcing his nine wives and from marrying any others.
2. The Prophet’s (peace be upon him) divorce of Hafsa (may Allah be pleased with her) and his reconciliation with Sawdah (may Allah be pleased with her) to give up her day to Aisha, occurred before the revelation of this noble verse.
3. Scholars differed on whether this ruling remained or was abrogated, as it was narrated from Aisha (may Allah be pleased with her): "The Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) did not die until women were made lawful for him."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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