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Is the husband's saying to his wife's brothers during a quarrel, "She is divorced from him," considered a pronouncement of divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The divorce of an angry person is valid, and this is the view of the majority of scholars, unless the anger reaches the point of fainting and losing awareness of one's actions, in which case his divorce does not occur. If the husband did not reach this state, then his divorce has occurred. If this was the first or second divorce, he can take his wife back without a new marriage contract during her iddah (waiting period). If the iddah ends, she is not permissible for him except with a new contract and mahr (dowry). If this was the third divorce, she is not permissible for him until she marries another man.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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