Is it permissible or forbidden to consume baked or frozen sweets that contain a small percentage of liquid vanilla extract, knowing that the alcohol content ranges from 2% to 3% and disappears after baking, and that consuming it does not lead to intoxication? And should children be prevented from consuming 95% of the sweets available in the market if they are deemed forbidden?

If a person doubts the presence of alcohol in sweets, the default assumption is its absence, and it is permissible to consume them. However, if one is certain of the alcohol's presence, then if it intoxicates in large quantities, it is forbidden because "that which intoxicates in large quantities, a little of it is forbidden." If it does not intoxicate, even in large quantities, then some scholars, such as Sheikh Ibn Uthaymeen, consider it permissible to consume it if the proportion of alcohol is small and has been consumed (i.e., its intoxicating effect is negligible) such that it does not cause intoxication. They argue that something mixed with an impurity but not changed by it is not considered impure.