Did the oath depend on the intention of the one swearing: "I swear by Allah that I will not masturbate," meaning that masturbation refers to ejaculating semen, and that the intended meaning of ejaculating semen is masturbation until semen is ejaculated, and not its general ejaculation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If what you swore concerning masturbation and ejaculation did not occur, then you have not broken your oath, because an oath is based on the intention of the one swearing it. With the reminder that masturbation is forbidden and impermissible.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/134391
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 134391
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy