Does the first pronouncement of divorce count as the statement the husband used to answer his wife when she asked him, "Am I married or am I divorced?" and he replied, "Perhaps you are divorced, I don't know," even though he did not intend to effect a divorce?
If the wife asks her husband: "Am I married or divorced?" and he replies: "Perhaps you are divorced, I don't know," then if he did not intend divorce, it does not occur, because he did not state it definitively. However, if he stated divorce definitively, it occurs whether he was serious or joking, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "There are three matters whose seriousness is serious and whose joking is serious: marriage, divorce, and رجعة (returning to one's wife after a revocable divorce)." Consensus has been narrated regarding the occurrence of divorce pronounced in jest. But the phrases "perhaps" and "I don't know" are not explicit in divorce, and the basic principle is the continuation of the marriage, unless the husband intended to effect divorce with this statement, in which case it occurs.
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