Is it obligatory to ask a mufti or send a question for a fatwa every time the explicit word of divorce is mentioned – by way of narration – and is it sufficient for the husband to have the intention of narration without the divorce taking place?
If a husband utters explicit divorce pronouncements by way of recounting or teaching, and not with the intention of initiating a divorce, then no divorce occurs thereby.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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