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The question

Is it a condition for divorce to occur that there be a pre-existing intention for divorce when the husband says, "You are divorced, divorced, divorced," with a prior agreement to divorce?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The majority of scholars hold that divorce is valid without witnesses. If the husband utters an explicit divorce, his divorce takes effect, whether he intended it or not, and whether he was serious or joking. If the husband admits to uttering an explicit divorce and the waiting period () has expired, he does not have the right to take his wife back unless there is a new contract. However, if he intended, by repeating the word of divorce, to repeat its occurrence, or if this divorce completed the three divorces, then she is irrevocably divorced from him (baynunah kubra), and he cannot take her back unless she marries another husband out of genuine desire, and then he separates from her, and her waiting period ends. In case of dispute, the judge will rule on the matter.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
160688
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy