Does divorce occur if the wife chooses her female friend, with the husband intending divorce but the wife not intending it? And does the husband's unawareness that giving the wife a choice is one of the ambiguous expressions of divorce negate his intention of divorce? And is the husband obligated to strive to recall his intention in this case?

We alert the questioner that his obsessive thoughts regarding divorce may lead to their entrenchment. Giving the wife the choice of divorce is a metaphorical (kinayah) expression for both the husband and the wife. If the husband did not intend divorce, then nothing is binding upon him, and he is to be believed regarding what he intended. If the husband intended divorce and the wife chose herself, this is also a metaphorical expression. If she intended divorce, then it is binding; otherwise, nothing is binding upon him, and she is to be believed regarding what she states. If you think that what you said is an explicit divorce, then this is more likely to indicate the presence of an intention to divorce. However, if you are not certain about the presence of an intention to divorce, then the intention is not formed, as intention requires certainty and absence of hesitation. Therefore, you do not need to exert effort to know your intention. We advise you to abstain from thinking about this matter and to seek refuge in Allah from Satan.