Does a divorce issued by a husband in a state of extreme anger, and without the intention of divorce, take effect, in addition to a previously pending divorce in which no verbal pronouncement of divorce was made? And is the husband's statement in a state of anger to be considered, or the wife's statement?

The question encompassed several matters: 1. The husband's statement to his wife, "You are divorced," while in a state of anger, is considered a valid divorce, unless the anger reached the point of losing consciousness and awareness. 2. The husband's statement to his wife, "And your bed is forbidden to me," has been clarified in previous fatwas. 3. The husband's statement to his wife, "If you go to the soothsayers, then consider yourself outside my marital bond," is a metaphorical expression of divorce. If the intention was a threat of divorce, then divorce occurs upon her going to the soothsayers, according to the majority of scholars. If the intention was something else, such as her exiting the husband's care and protection, then no divorce occurs. 4. The husband's statement to his wife, "Consider it one," is a metaphorical expression of divorce that could imply divorce or something else. If he intended one divorce, then divorce occurs and it is considered a notification of a previous divorce. If he intended a mistake or slip, then no divorce occurs. 5. The questioner did not clarify what happened in the moderate state of anger between the two conditions, and whether a divorce or a word susceptible to it occurred.

Therefore, it is advisable to refer to the Sharia court or trusted scholars in the questioner's country, as there may be other details not mentioned that could alter the ruling.