Does a husband's obligation to bear his wife's expenses fall away after an agreement with her and her parents before marriage not to bear them?

The husband's condition to his wife that he will not spend on her is a void condition, but it does not invalidate the marriage contract. The wife has the right to demand maintenance from her husband, and this right is not forfeited by this condition. This is the view of Ibn Qudamah. Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah mentioned the possibility of this condition being valid, especially if we say that if the wife accepts it after the husband's insolvency, she no longer has the right to demand it afterwards.