Is the self-talk that occurred twenty years ago, with the phrase "If I speak to this person, I will not continue with her," considered an intention accompanying the veiled utterance (kinayah) of divorce, and does this self-talk alone, without direct confirmation to the wife, lead to the occurrence of divorce, or is it not relied upon as an intention for divorce to occur, given that it is a promise of divorce and precedes the utterance? And what is relied upon in determining the occurrence of divorce after such a long period?