Do the divorces issued by a husband who divorced his wife five times count, with one explicit divorce, three conditional divorces, and a final divorce issued with the intention of divorce, knowing that some of these divorces were issued by him in a state of anger or to appease his wife, and he now does not want to reconcile with her?
If there has been no prior court ruling or fatwa regarding the aforementioned divorces, the ruling for each divorce is as follows: - First divorce: It does not occur if it was made in extreme anger that compelled the husband to divorce and he would not have divorced otherwise, even if he was conscious of what he was saying. - Second divorce: This is a conditional divorce. Its occurrence depends on the husband's intention: if he intended divorce, it occurs; if he intended a threat, he must offer expiation for a broken oath; and if he forgot his intention, the divorce occurs. - Third divorce: It does not occur if the husband genuinely fears that the wife will kill the children or inflict apparent harm upon them, because it is a divorce under duress. - Fourth divorce: This is a conditional divorce. It does not occur unless you informed someone of your problems, and the husband intended divorce with his words. - Fifth divorce: This is a conditional divorce, and the husband intended divorce by it, so it occurs.
Based on the above, the ruling for the first divorce is determined by the accompanying anger, and the ruling for the second and third divorces is determined by ascertaining the husband's intention by referring back to him. If the husband does not reconcile with you after the last divorce and your waiting period (iddah) has expired, then this is an irrevocable divorce (baynunah), and he cannot return to you except with a new contract, provided that the divorces you have incurred have not reached three pronouncements.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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