What is the legitimacy of the statement that there is no need for a marriage contract as long as people know of the intention to marry and the woman tells the man, "I have given myself to you," on the pretext that there was no marriage contract during the time of the Messenger of Allah, may Allah bless him and grant him peace?

The statement "There is no need for a marriage contract" can be interpreted in one of two ways: Either it means the legal Islamic marriage contract (offer and acceptance), and this is false and has not been asserted by anyone, and is refuted by what has been established regarding the form of the contract during the time of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him. Or it means the non-necessity of an authorized marriage official (ma'dhun) or an engagement or a specific place for the contract, and this is correct in terms of obligation, as these matters are not obligatory, even if they are recommended.