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What is the ruling on dealing with a person who reviled the religion, considering his action blatant disbelief, and is refraining from greeting him considered a sign of his disbelief, and is the intention to revile a prerequisite for disbelief to occur?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Here are several points:

1. Cursing Islam is more severe than reviling it; it is absolute disbelief, and it is not a condition for the reviler to consider it permissible, or to be knowledgeable, or to intend it.

2. Cursing the Islam of a specific person may entail disbelief or otherwise. If one intends the religion of Islam itself, it is disbelief. However, if one intends the person's understanding or religiosity, it is not disbelief.

3. Ruling on an act as disbelief differs from ruling on a specific person as a disbeliever. A specific individual is not declared a disbeliever except by deeply rooted scholars due to their knowledge of the conditions and impediments of declaring someone a disbeliever.

4. The hadith, "If a man says to his brother, 'O disbeliever,' then one of them has indeed incurred it," does not mean that the speaker becomes a disbeliever. Rather, it means that the accusation of disbelief has returned upon him, as if he has declared himself a disbeliever.

5. A Muslim has the right to stipulate Islam for whomever he wishes to marry. Marrying a Muslim woman is better than marrying a woman from the People of the Book, and it is impermissible by scholarly consensus to marry a non-Kitābī woman before her conversion to Islam.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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