Is my mother's tawaf for Umrah five years ago sufficient for the Tawaf al-Ifadah and Tawaf al-Wada' of her Hajj, which she did not complete 35 years ago, given that she menstruated after standing at Arafat and did not complete the tawaf? Is her Hajj invalid, or is she still in her state of ihram? Was her marriage 35 years ago invalid? Is it permissible for her to swear an oath in Jordan that she has not performed Hajj before?

Summary: Ignorance of religious rulings is a serious ailment that leads to great difficulty. The mother must seek forgiveness for her shortcomings in learning what is incumbent upon her.

Regarding the matter: - The woman remained in her state of ihram until she performed the circumambulation (tawaf) and the ritual walking (sa'i), because there is no last time for tawaf and sa'i, and their time begins from the middle of the night of 'Eid al-Adha and remains until the end of one's life. - Her ihram for 'Umrah was not valid, and her tawaf and sa'i were counted for the tawaf and sa'i of Hajj, because one who is already in a state of ritual devotion (nusuk) is not permitted to enter ihram for 'Umrah. - The marriage of that woman: - It was not valid according to the majority of scholars. - The marriage contract is valid after the first release from ihram (tahallul al-awwal) according to some scholars, such as Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and many Shafi'is. - The Hanafis validate the marriage of a person in ihram in all cases. - It is more cautious to renew the contract to avoid disagreement. - The children are undoubtedly attributed to their father. As for the conjugal relations that occurred before her release from ihram, there is no sin upon her due to her ignorance of the ruling.