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The question

What is the reason why the Prophet (peace be upon him) did not ask the man who married his father's wife to repent before killing him? Was the permissibility in this case a matter of the heart or a revelation? Is it obligatory for a verdict to be issued in person before the Hadd punishment is carried out? Does the marriage of a Muslim woman to a Christian carry the same ruling?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

This hadith was narrated by the authors of the Four Sunan and others, with varying chains of transmission and texts. Some scholars have weakened it due to this discrepancy, while a group of scholars affirmed its authenticity.

Those who affirmed its authenticity differed on the reason for his killing. Some interpreted it as due to his apostasy, by him deeming lawful what Allah has forbidden. Others held that his killing was a hadd punishment, not for his apostasy, and this is the view of the majority of scholars.

In any case, this hadith cannot be used as an analogy for the ruling on a Muslim woman marrying a non-Muslim, because the prohibition of marrying one's father's wife is perpetual, whereas the prohibition of a Muslim woman marrying a non-Muslim is not perpetual, as his conversion to Islam permits his marriage to her.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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