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The question

What is the ruling on someone who said to his wife, "If you sell anything from the house without my permission, then you are divorced," and then she sold a bottle of oil after a long time?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

According to the majority of jurists, a suspended divorce occurs upon the fulfillment of the condition it was suspended upon. Thus, if a husband suspends his wife’s divorce on her selling something from his household belongings without his permission, and she sells something from them, the divorce occurs according to the majority. However, Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah held that he is obligated to offer an expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat yameen) if he did not intend divorce but rather intended prohibition or threat.

If the divorce occurs, the husband can reconcile with her before the expiration of her waiting period (iddah), provided that this divorce does not complete the three divorces. The iddah ends with her purification from the third menstrual cycle, or with her delivery if she is pregnant, or after the passage of three months if she does not menstruate. If the iddah ends, he cannot take her back except with a new marriage contract.

An exception to the occurrence of divorce is if the husband intended prohibition for a specific period and the sale occurred after that period, or if he intended a specific type of item and she sold something else, or if his oath was for a specific reason and that reason ceased without his intervention.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
112632
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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