Does a divorce issued by a person overcome by extreme stress and anger, or who was under the influence of sedatives that made him lose control of himself, take effect?
In your previous question, you mentioned that you were conscious during the three consecutive divorces the first time. In the subsequent two instances, you did not clarify the degree of anger or your level of awareness, but you stated that the divorce occurred without issue and that you were upset.
Now you have mentioned that your awareness was not complete in some of your divorces. Anger is of three types: 1. Does not alter perception: Divorce occurs by agreement. 2. Completely absent perception: Divorce does not occur by agreement. 3. Perception is not completely absent, but it prevents intention: Scholars differed on this, and Ibn al-Qayyim prefers that it does not occur.
Therefore, we advise you to consult the Sharia courts in your country.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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