Is it permissible for us to deduce an obligation from the Noble Qur’an that was not transmitted from the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, as an obligation, based on the saying of some of the Salaf regarding His, the Most High’s, saying: "So when they have purified themselves, then come to them from where Allah has ordered you"?

Ibn Hazm held the view that a husband is obligated to engage in intercourse with his wife once during each period of purity (tahr), if he is able. He based this on the Almighty's saying: {Then when they have purified themselves, then come to them from where Allah has commanded you}.

However, his inference is incorrect because the verse indicates recommendation and guidance, and "a command after a prohibition" does not necessarily imply obligation. The preponderant opinion is that a man is obligated to keep his wife chaste to the best of his ability and her need, without specifying a fixed frequency.