What is the meaning of the phrase: "From this it is understood that if the choice explicitly mentioned divorce, then divorce would certainly occur," which appears in the context of discussing giving the wife the choice [to divorce]?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a husband gives his wife a choice [regarding divorce] and intends divorce, and she responds with an explicit phrase like "I divorce myself," then her divorce takes effect by that, regardless of her intention. This is because an explicit verbalization does not require an intention, unlike an ambiguous one.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/147583
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 147583
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy