Is it permissible for a Muslim poet who writes prose poetry to use Greek or Roman myths in his poetry, such as saying: "The kingdom of Prometheus burned, Narcissus still gazes into the burning river," by way of citation and to strengthen the poem, while not believing in these myths?

The questioner mentioned in his question that alternatives fill the void and remove him from disagreement, and this is what is advised: that he write poetry on good morals and committed themes, instead of occupying himself with what is called "modern poetry," which Sheikh Ali Al-Tantawi described as "delirium."

From the perspective of content, free verse has been used by deviant individuals to pass on beliefs and ideas contrary to religion, exploiting excessive symbolism and ambiguity.

However, the mere writing of modern poetry and mentioning ancient myths is not definitively ruled as forbidden if there is no Sharia-prohibited meaning within it, even though some scholars view it as entirely prohibited. They cited a fatwa by Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, in which he describes free verse as "corrupt speech" because it alters the Arabic language, corrupts the tongue, eloquence, and sound taste. He stated that it is a change to the commendable rituals of the Arabs, and that learning and teaching Arabic is a communal obligation (fard kifayah), and it is obligatory to preserve the Arabic linguistic rules and correct tongues that deviate from them.

It was also narrated from Sheikh Muhammad Al-Hasan Al-Dido that Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah explicitly stated that the "Ahzaj" (poetic meters) that deviate from Al-Khalil ibn Ahmad's meters are an innovation (bid'ah) that one should not engage in. This includes free verse that does not adhere to the known poetic feet (tafilat), as it is a change and an innovation that leads to the subversion of what is customary and well-known among people.