Does a divorce take effect after two previous divorces, based on the wife's request and insistence, and what is the impact of that on the three children?
A wife is not permitted to seek divorce without a legitimate Shari excuse. An explicit divorce pronounced by the husband, even in jest, or an implicit divorce uttered with intention, takes effect if the wife is under his marital bond. The presence or absence of children does not affect the enforceability of the divorce. If the three aforementioned pronouncements of divorce occur, the wife becomes irrevocably divorced (baynunah kubra) and is not lawful for him until she marries another husband.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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