Is living with one's husband, under the circumstances mentioned above, after three divorces, considered unlawful, given that the judge, the Dar al-Ifta (House of Fatwas), and others have stated that the divorce did not occur because it was an innovated divorce (talaq bid'i) and took place during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred, and based on the husband's intention?

It is permissible for an ordinary person to follow a specific school of thought or to ask someone whose knowledge they trust, without following whims or seeking out concessions. If an ordinary person has an expansive intellect and complete understanding, then they should ask those who differ about their schools of thought and their arguments, and then adopt what they find most preponderant. However, if their intellect and understanding fall short of this, then it is permissible for them to follow the most virtuous among them in their view.

Accordingly, there is no harm in adopting the opinion of a mufti whose knowledge and piety are trusted. However, if one's soul is not at ease with the mufti's fatwa, and it is strongly suspected that it is incorrect, then one is not obliged to act upon it; rather, it is not permissible to act upon it. And if a Sharia court issues a ruling that permits a wife to return to her husband, while she believes its invalidity, then it is not permissible for her to allow him access to her in this situation.