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Does a triple divorce take effect if the husband made it conditional upon his wife's request, and then the wife requested a divorce while in a state of extreme anger, to the point of not realizing what she was saying, and her intention was not divorce but rather to alert her husband to his shortcomings?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a man conditions his wife's divorce on her asking for it, then if she asks for divorce, it takes effect according to the majority of scholars, unless he intended only to prevent and threaten, in which case he is obligated to offer an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin) according to Ibn Taymiyyah and others. Some scholars, such as the Shafi'is, restrict the occurrence of conditioned divorce (talaq mu'allaq) by the non-occurrence of the conditioned action in cases of forgetfulness, ignorance, or duress, whether the action was performed by herself or by another, provided that the other person was aware of the condition. However, if the other person was not aware, the divorce takes effect even with forgetfulness or duress. If the wife's anger reaches the point of duress to ask for divorce, the conditioned divorce does not take effect if the husband did not intend to condition the divorce but rather intended to prevent her from asking. It is advisable to consult the Sharia courts.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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