Is this considered a single repudiation, and does returning to the wife not require a new contract or witnesses?

If a husband divorces his wife while in a state of extreme anger where he does not comprehend what he is saying, the divorce does not take effect because he is considered to be in the state of an insane person. However, if he comprehends what he is saying, and he utters an explicit form of divorce (such as: "You are divorced"), the divorce takes effect even if he did not intend it. And if he uses an ambiguous phrase that indicates divorce (such as: "Go to your family") with the intention of divorce, then the divorce takes effect. If this is the first or second divorce, he has the right to take his wife back before the 'iddah (waiting period) ends, either by explicit verbal declaration or by sexual intercourse and its preliminaries, with or without intention according to some scholars. A new marriage contract is not required, nor is it necessary to inform the family.