Is a divorce pronounced by a non-Arabic speaker valid if he utters the word "talaq" without understanding its meaning, and is he held accountable for saying something he does not comprehend?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur unless the husband pronounces it while understanding its meaning. If he pronounces it without understanding its meaning, then his divorce does not occur.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/10998
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 10998
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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