Is it correct to infer that the Prophet (ﷺ) did not order Hind bint Utbah to divorce when she complained about Abu Sufyan's stinginess, or is the incident related to her asking about the ruling on taking from his money without his knowledge, and that the Prophet (ﷺ) permitted her to take what suffices her and her child in a reasonable manner?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a husband does not spend on his wife, she is permitted to take from his money, without his knowledge, what suffices her and her child in a reasonable manner, as Hind bint Utbah did. If she is unable to do that, then it is legislated for her to seek separation, because he has not fulfilled the marital relationship with kindness, as Umar ibn al-Khattab (may Allah be pleased with him) ruled. As for a woman seeking divorce without a reason, it is not permissible.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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