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The question

Does the divorce that I uttered during varying periods of anger count, knowing that I only intended divorce once, and continued my marital life normally after each time, and neither my wife nor I desire divorce?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Explicit divorce does not require an intention, nor is ignorance of its rulings an excuse, nor is anger that does not incapacitate the mind. Accordingly, a triple successive divorce is considered a major irrevocable divorce (baynunah kubra), and remarriage is not permissible unless the woman marries another husband, consummates the marriage with him, and then he divorces her or dies, and her waiting period () expires. Some scholars, such as Ibn Taymiyyah, hold that successive divorces without a new marriage contract or reconciliation count as a single divorce. It is preferable to present these issues to trustworthy scholars.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
154136
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy