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The question

Is the marriage considered valid if the husband violates a condition agreed upon before the marriage, which was that he would not wrong his wife?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband wrongs his wife, he has committed a heinous sin, for the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Injustice will be darknesses on the Day of Resurrection." And Allah Almighty said in a Sacred : "O My servants, I have forbidden injustice for Myself and made it forbidden among you, so do not commit injustice against one another."

As for the marriage contract, it is valid if its pillars are met, which are: the presence of the wife's guardian or his representative, two just witnesses, and a formula indicating the contract. If these pillars are met, the marriage is valid, even if the husband wrongs his wife after the marriage.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
118079
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy