How can semen be pure when it exits from the same opening as urine and mixes with residual traces of urine in the urethra, thereby becoming impure?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The preponderant opinion is that semen is pure, and its emission from the urinary tract does not render it impure. Scholars have mentioned that semen has its own specific duct, and even if it were to exit through the urinary tract, internal contact does not affect its purity. The passage of semen through the urinary tract is not an indication of semen's impurity.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/180960
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 180960
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy