What is the authenticity of the Hadith: "Indeed, when Allah Almighty wishes to conceal His servant on the Day of Resurrection and not expose him before all witnesses, He will give him his book in his right hand, even though it is laden with sins... 'O angels, take him to Paradise by My pardon and My mercy'"? And does divorce occur if a man says to his wife's family: "She is divorced as far as I am concerned"?

The aforementioned hadith (definition), in this exact wording, was not found in the books of Sunnah (definition). However, its meaning is conveyed in "Kitab Az-Zuhd" by Imam Ahmad ibn Hanbal, where Allah brings the servant close on the Day of Judgment and conceals him. Then, He presents his book to him, and he rejoices at the good deeds and is pleased with them, prostrating when they are accepted. Then he sees the bad deeds and is terrified by them, and his face darkens. But Allah forgives them for him, so the creation sees nothing from him but prostration, and they assume he never disobeyed Allah at all. The hadith of an-Najwa (private counsel) in Sahih (definition) [Muslim/Bukhari] bears witness to this, where Allah conceals the servant on the Day of Judgment, and he confesses his sins. Then Allah says: "Indeed, I concealed them for you in the worldly life, and I have forgiven that for you today." As for a man saying to his wife: "She is, for me, divorced," this is an explicit pronouncement of divorce and does not require intention.