Why is a woman entitled to seek divorce due to her husband's inability to fulfill her conjugal rights, whereas a man is accused of injustice and oppression if he seeks divorce due to his aversion to his wife for the same reason, even if the cause of his aversion is his inability to have intercourse with her after marriage?

Divorce is not unlawful unless a man divorces his wife during menstruation or during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her. Divorce due to the wife's unattractiveness is not unlawful; rather, it might be the more appropriate course of action if she does not fulfill his needs and he is unable to marry another woman.

The Lawgiver did not disregard other attributes like beauty; rather, He encouraged looking for what fosters affection between spouses. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "If one of you proposes to a woman, and he is able to look at that part of her which would encourage him to marry her, then let him do so." And to one who intended to propose, he said: "Look at her, for it is more likely to create affection between the two of you."