Does divorce occur in a state of extreme anger, and is the reconciliation valid if the husband intended not to divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The question involves two possibilities: The first is that the divorce occurred before the marriage contract, in which case it has no effect, as you were a stranger to him. The second possibility is that it occurred after the marriage contract, in which case the divorce is valid. Writing a divorce is among the كنايات (indirect expressions) that do not effect divorce unless accompanied by intention. Anger does not prevent its occurrence unless it reaches the point of loss of consciousness. As for reconciliation after valid seclusion (khalwa sahiha), there is a difference of opinion among scholars. We advise consulting scholars in your country.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 92453
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