What is the response to one who denies the hadith: "Attach the fara'id (allotted shares) to their rightful recipients..." claiming it contradicts the Quran, and holds that His saying, may He be exalted: "And if there are women, more than two, then for them is two-thirds of what he left" includes the male, and that the matter of 'asabah (agnatic heirs) contradicts the Quran, basing this on the comprehensiveness of the word "walad" (child/offspring) for both male and female in His saying, may He be exalted: "And for his parents, each one of them a sixth of what he left, if he has walad (children)"?

What remains of the wealth after those with obligatory shares is, by consensus, for the 'Asabat (agnatic heirs), as stated in the Hadith, "Give the Fara’id (obligatory shares) to those entitled to them; then whatever remains is for the closest male heir." This is agreed upon and consistent with the texts of the Qur'an. Scholars have unanimously concurred on this and have transmitted this consensus on the issue. There is no room for ijtihad (independent reasoning) in it, nor for demanding the annulment of the rule of 'asabah, because absolute equality between male and female in inheritance is invalid and contrary to the texts and consensus. For the Shari'ah differentiates between them in some matters and equates them in others, based on justice, not absolute equality.