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Has the wife become forbidden to her husband after the aforementioned divorces, noting that the first divorce was three consecutive times, the second divorce was conditional on leaving the house with the intention of threatening and not divorcing, and the third divorce was in a state of anger?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The word "taliq" (divorced) is an explicit pronouncement, and divorce takes effect by it without the need for prior intention. If the repetition of the word (taliq, taliq) is intended for emphasis, one divorce occurs. If it is intended to initiate a new divorce, three divorces occur. As for conditional divorce (e.g., "If you leave, you will be divorced"), it takes effect, according to the majority of scholars, as soon as the condition is met. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the view that it does not take effect unless actual divorce is intended, not merely a threat. Divorce pronounced in a state of anger takes effect by agreement of the jurists.

Based on this, the woman is not permissible for the husband according to the view of the majority of scholars, which we prioritize on this platform. However, according to Sheikh al-Islam's opinion, she might only be divorced twice if the intention behind the second divorce was merely a threat, and divorce pronounced with the word "three" counts as one. A revocably divorced woman can be taken back without a new dowry or contract. A woman divorced with a minor irrevocable divorce is not permissible unless through a new contract. A woman divorced with a major irrevocable divorce is not permissible until she marries another husband.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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