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The question

What is the ruling regarding a man's statement to his wife: "I swear by divorce that I will lie to you after this, as long as it angers you when I express my opinion," knowing that he does not intend to divorce her by this?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

We issue a that divorce occurs upon breaking an oath sworn by divorce, whether the one who swore the oath intended it to occur or not. This is the view of the majority of scholars. Ibn Taymiyyah, however, held that whoever swore an oath by divorce without intending it to occur is obligated to pay an expiation for breaking an oath, and their divorce does not occur. Based on this, if you broke your oath when your wife asked you about the food, divorce occurs. You can tell her that you like the food to avoid this, as lying is permissible between spouses in such matters, as stated in the : "I do not consider him a liar: a man who reconciles between people and says a statement intending nothing but reconciliation; and a man who speaks in war; and a man who speaks to his wife; and a woman who speaks to her husband."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
154990
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy